
Originally Posted by
caveman1917
You're stating that the usage of the term "man" for mixed groups is a representation of male dominance. You are then shown that an authoritative reference on the matter clearly shows that your interpretation is incorrect (it has not the primary meaning related to gender). Your response is "then that's bad reference-writing".
Yes, but I also explained why it is bad reference-writing. The primary definition in a dictionary is the most frequently used definition, the definition which will cause a person to look up the word. The secondary definitions exist because words have more than one meaning; the definitions are generally in descending order of use. If the first definition given is not the most frequently used sense, especially by such a large margin, that is a badly written entry no matter what the word is. It's not as though there were several definitions which were used with about the same level of frequency. One is used far more often--and has been for centuries. It is the secondary definition. No matter what word, wouldn't you agree that the first definition should be the one most frequently used? Wouldn't you agree that not doing so is bad dictionary-writing?
It's akin to someone making a claim in ATM, and when being shown a textbook stating his claim is incorrect to then reply with "that's just bad textbook-writing". Nobody would have a problem with dismissing this person's claims unless he gives evidence that his claim is indeed correct. Why would you have a problem with people dismissing yours?
What if it were an example of bad textbook-writing? Are you going to claim that such things never happen?
Of the languages I know, English is the only one without an exclusive term for the human male, and it is also the only one where purportedly male dominance is reflected in the language. What are the odds? Isn't an alternative explanation more likely? Where the name for the species acquired a secondary meaning as the name for the male, that then got turned upside down?
You might want to look into the etymology of "man." It did indeed start as a universal. Then, they stopped using the Old English word which meant "male human" and started using the generic to be applicable to specifically males. However, that, to me, indicates that to the people who codified the language--men--males were all that mattered. And in fact, the argument was held in my Spanish class in high school that it was completely unreasonable that the presence of one man in a group of every woman on Earth made the gender applied to that group male. We had a problem with that, too, but the problems in languages with distinct gender for words are much more complicated.
Or at the very least, if you're insisting that it is a result of male dominance, would you not find it normal for people to need evidence for that claim, especially in light of authoritative references stating the opposite?
In English, there is no such thing as true authority. There is no agency. The OED is fallible, and I think I demonstrated that, in this case, their chosen order makes no sense. Yes, there is the etymological history, but if that were all that mattered, the first definition in the OED for "nice" should be "foolish," and I somehow doubt (I don't have an OED) that it is.
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