Originally Posted by Selfsim
The chance of any specific integer being picked by random out of all integers is infinitesimally small, the chance of an integer less than a given integer being picked is also infinitesimally small, individual integers don't have a finite non-zero chance of happening so the argument doesn't apply to them.
Originally Posted by Strange
Pi isn't random, arguments about random numbers doesn't apply to its digits.
This is like the often repeated claim that (all versions of) the complete works of Shakespeare must appear in the decimal expansion of Pi. It ain't necessarily so.
Reductionist and proud of it.
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